The processes required to define the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and determine the appropriate course of action to achieve the project objectives.

The processes that track, review, and regulate the performance and progress of the project.

The processes that are performed to complete the work of the project as defined in the project management plan.

This process group includes processes spanning all ten knowledge areas:

The majority of the project team’s time, efforts, and expense are applied during this process group:

Includes status reports, information notes, electronic dashboards, justifications, memos, etc.

The difference between work performance information and work performance data can best be described as:

The documented start and finish dates of activities, actual costs and durations, percent of work physically completed would all be considered:

Forecasts, such as budget and schedule forecasts, would be considered:

Which statement is most accurate:

Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.

This knowledge area has processes in all five process groups:

The validate scope process:

Which of the following processes is not in the executing process group?

The perform integrated change control process is in what knowledge area?

Which process is in the initiating process group?

Which of the following process is not a procurement process?

Which of the following is not a stakeholder management process?

Which process is not in the monitoring and controlling process group?

Which process is not in the executing process group?

You have secured written authorization for your project. What process has been completed?

The deliverables are an output of what process?

All of the following are key benefits of developing the project charter, except:

Which of these tools are used to develop the project charter:

Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding the project charter?

This document, used for decision making purposes, determines whether or not the project is worth the investment.

Organizational standard processes, procedures, templates, historical information, and lessons learned used to develop the project charter are all considered:

The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan:

The project management plan describes how the work will be executed, monitored, and controlled and collects and integrates the following components except

Two key outputs from the direct and manage project work process are:

An intentional action taken to realign the performance of the project with the project management plan.

Any unique verifiable product, capability to perform a service, or result that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project. Typically tangible components:

What is the key benefit of monitoring and controlling project work?

The physical or electronic representation of work performance information, compiled in project documents with an intent to generate awareness, decisions, and actions.

The key benefit of this process is that it provides lessons learned, the formal ending of the project, and the release of organizational resources to pursue new endeavors.

The two key outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process are:

An intentional action taken to modify a nonconforming product or product component

Which statement is most accurate?

The activity attributes are to the activity list as what is to the WBS?

The scope baseline is an output of what process?

Requirements documentation and the requirements traceability matrix are:

Documents how the scope will be defined, validated, and controlled:

A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization.

A multicriteria decision analysis

An assessment process having multiple alternatives with an expected outcome in the form of future actions, used to generate, classify, and prioritize product requirements:

Tools/techniques used to validate scope include:

A tool/technique used to control scope:

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline

The following is true about the WBS:

You have just been made the project manager of the redesign project. You are trying to read the WBS and are unable to understand some of the WBS components. Which should be your first step to understand this?

An output of the define scope process is:

What is the WBS typically used for?

Which of the following is a tool/technique used to create the WBS:

Which of the following statements is true about the WBS?

You have completed your activity list and activity attributes. What process have completed:

Which statement is least accurate regarding the PDM?

The difference between the project schedule and the schedule baseline could best be described as:

The schedule forecasts are an output of what process

Activity C has a start to start relationship with Activity D. Activity C is 12 days and activity D is 15 days. If the start of activity D gets delayed by six days, what is the best case duration?

The test plan design must be approved by the project engineer prior to implementation. This represents what type of dependency?

Which statement is most accurate regarding resource leveling and resource smoothing?

In a finish-to-start precedence relationship with a one-day lead:

Which of the following is an example of a FS (finish-to-start) interactivity relationship?

If the planned value (PV) is $275,000 and the earned value (EV) is $300,000, the schedule variance (SV) is:

When correcting a scheduling problem, what is the first technique a project manager should consider?

Top-down duration estimating is also known as:

When crashing a task, the project team needs to focus on:

The EV is $92,000 and the PV is $85,000. This suggests the project is:

The schedule variance is $22,000 and the planned value is $55,000. As such:

Adding resources to the critical path is an example of:

The project is 30% complete and has a budget of $90,000. The actual costs paid-to-date are $25,000 and the budgeted costs to-date were $30,000. What is the status of the project schedule?

At six months in, your $785,000 project is 35% complete and the TCPI is .74 and you’ve spent $95,000 to date. What is the earned value of the project?

The project has earned value of $87,750. Costs-to-date have been $110,000, and the budget is $195,000. What percent complete is this project?

Your project has earned value of $300,000 despite invoices totaling $325,000. You’ve calculated your TCPI as 1.14. What is your budget?

A cost performance index of 0.8 suggests the project is:

For a project with an unexpected cost variance that is not expected to recur, which EAC formula would be most appropriate?

Parametric cost estimating involves:

Analogous estimating:

Which statement is most accurate:

The project has earned value of $87,750. Costs-to-date have been $110,000, and the budget is $195,000. What is the status of the project?

The $350,000 project has a forecasted ($90,000) variance at completion (VAC). What is the estimate at completion (EAC) forecast?

The project has a TCPI of .85. This means:

This is considered an assessment of correctness:

The costs associated with assessing the quality of a product is considered:

Also known as Ishikawa diagrams, these diagrams start with the problem and seek to identify the root causes or causes of the problem:

Varying in complexity, these tools aid organizations in ensuring consistency in frequently performed tasks:

The difference between a quality metric and a quality measurement can best be described as:

Comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects through benchmarking can be used for all of the following except:

The process of monitoring and recording results of quality activities to assess performance and recommend changes as necessary

Once a deliverable has been evaluated through the control quality process, it is considered:

According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the highest level need is:

He believed that resources will put in more effort if they believe they will receive a greater reward.

McGregor’s theory of X and Y states:

He said that individuals have varying levels of need for achievement.

According to Herzberg’s theory of motivation:

Securing resources from external sources:

The process of improving competencies, team member interactions, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.

The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing changes to optimize project performance.

Expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project.

A hierarchical representation of resources by category and type

The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications based on the stakeholder’s information needs and requirements, and available organizational assets.

The process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance with the communications management plan.

Composed of a sender, receiver, message, medium, and noise.

Used for very large volumes of information, or for very large audiences, and requires the recipients to access the communication content at their own discretion.

The act of collecting and distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts. Involves the periodic collection and analysis of baseline versus actual data to understand and communicate the project progress and performance as well as to forecast the project results.

Thoughts or ideas are translated into language by the sender.

When choosing communication technology, all of these factors may be considered, except:

The response strategy that changes the plan to eliminate the probability of risk occurrence:

The response strategy that changes the plan to reduce the probability and/or impact of a threat:

Used when the primary response is not effective:

A risk that arises directly as a result of implementing a risk response.

A response to a negative risk event that is not planned in advance.

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.

The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.

A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk.

Risk appetite is best described as:

Technique to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management

Risk mitigation is to threats as what strategy is to opportunities?

Review and determination of the timing of actions that may need to occur sooner than other risk items

Joint ventures or other partnerships would be an example of what risk strategy?

Which statement is most accurate regarding risk acceptance?

Which of the following is not an output of the plan procurement management process?

Outputs from the conduct procurements process include:

The most commonly used contract type is:

This contract type is used whenever the seller’s performance period spans a considerable period of years, with a special provision for price adjustments due to changed conditions.

Which statement is most accurate:

Provides the project flexibility to redirect a seller whenever the scope of work cannot be precisely defined at the start and needs to be altered, or when high risks may exist in the effort.

Developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within the related contract.

Used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement requirements.

The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections to contracts as appropriate.

In a CPFF contract, the fixed fee is calculated:

A structured review of the seller’s progress to deliver project scope and quality, within cost and on schedule, as compared to the contract.

Which output is completed first: the stakeholder register or the stakeholder management plan?

If you have the completed stakeholder register, what process have you completed?

The primary output of the plan stakeholder engagement process is the:

Individuals, groups or organizations who may affect, be affected by, or perceive themselves to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project:

The stakeholder register typically contains:

The process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project life cycle.

Classifies stakeholders based on their ability to impose their will, their need for immediate attention, and the appropriateness of their level of involvement.

Which statement is least accurate regarding stakeholders

If the project is being conducted for the benefit of an external customer, there may be a legal agreement in place. Which of the following is not a form of an agreement?

Activities A, B, C, and D are happening concurrently. A is three days, B is seven days, C is three days, and D is six days. Which statement is most accurate?

This technique is applied during product design to optimize a specific aspect of the product, such as usability, safety, quality, or customer satisfaction.

All of the following are techniques for improving resource productivity and product quality, except:

Emails and social media posts are considered:

The 5Cs of written communication include:

A tool used to assess and classify stakeholders in a three-dimensional model:

Used to plan stakeholder engagement, this technique may be used to create a visual representation of the stakeholders and their relationships to each other and to the organization:

A stakeholder engagement assessment matrix: