Welcome to the final CAPM exam. This exam will go over what you learned throughout all 4 days in class. A few things to remember:
*You will get 3 hours to complete the exam.
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*If you would like to mark a question for review, be sure that you do not answer the question before hitting review..
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CAPM Final Exam B20 Copy Copy Copy
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- Answered
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Question 1 of 150
1. Question
The processes required to define the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and determine the appropriate course of action to achieve the project objectives.
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Question 2 of 150
2. Question
The processes that track, review, and regulate the performance and progress of the project.
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Question 3 of 150
3. Question
The processes that are performed to complete the work of the project as defined in the project management plan.
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Question 4 of 150
4. Question
This process group includes processes spanning all ten knowledge areas:
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Question 5 of 150
5. Question
The majority of the project team’s time, efforts, and expense are applied during this process group:
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Question 6 of 150
6. Question
Includes status reports, information notes, electronic dashboards, justifications, memos, etc.
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Question 7 of 150
7. Question
The difference between work performance information and work performance data can best be described as:
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Question 8 of 150
8. Question
The documented start and finish dates of activities, actual costs and durations, percent of work physically completed would all be considered:
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Question 9 of 150
9. Question
Forecasts, such as budget and schedule forecasts, would be considered:
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Question 10 of 150
10. Question
Which statement is most accurate:
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Question 11 of 150
11. Question
Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.
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Question 12 of 150
12. Question
This knowledge area has processes in all five process groups:
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Question 13 of 150
13. Question
The validate scope process:
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Question 14 of 150
14. Question
Which of the following processes is not in the executing process group?
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Question 15 of 150
15. Question
The perform integrated change control process is in what knowledge area?
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Question 16 of 150
16. Question
Which process is in the initiating process group?
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Question 17 of 150
17. Question
Which of the following process is not a procurement process?
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Question 18 of 150
18. Question
Which of the following is not a stakeholder management process?
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Question 19 of 150
19. Question
Which process is not in the monitoring and controlling process group?
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Question 20 of 150
20. Question
Which process is not in the executing process group?
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Question 21 of 150
21. Question
You have secured written authorization for your project. What process has been completed?
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Question 22 of 150
22. Question
The deliverables are an output of what process?
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Question 23 of 150
23. Question
All of the following are key benefits of developing the project charter, except:
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Question 24 of 150
24. Question
Which of these tools are used to develop the project charter:
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Question 25 of 150
25. Question
Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding the project charter?
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Question 26 of 150
26. Question
This document, used for decision making purposes, determines whether or not the project is worth the investment.
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Question 27 of 150
27. Question
Organizational standard processes, procedures, templates, historical information, and lessons learned used to develop the project charter are all considered:
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Question 28 of 150
28. Question
The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan:
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Question 29 of 150
29. Question
The project management plan describes how the work will be executed, monitored, and controlled and collects and integrates the following components except
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Question 30 of 150
30. Question
Two key outputs from the direct and manage project work process are:
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Question 31 of 150
31. Question
An intentional action taken to realign the performance of the project with the project management plan.
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Question 32 of 150
32. Question
Any unique verifiable product, capability to perform a service, or result that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project. Typically tangible components:
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Question 33 of 150
33. Question
What is the key benefit of monitoring and controlling project work?
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Question 34 of 150
34. Question
The physical or electronic representation of work performance information, compiled in project documents with an intent to generate awareness, decisions, and actions.
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Question 35 of 150
35. Question
The key benefit of this process is that it provides lessons learned, the formal ending of the project, and the release of organizational resources to pursue new endeavors.
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Question 36 of 150
36. Question
The two key outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process are:
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Question 37 of 150
37. Question
An intentional action taken to modify a nonconforming product or product component
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Question 38 of 150
38. Question
Which statement is most accurate?
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Question 39 of 150
39. Question
The activity attributes are to the activity list as what is to the WBS?
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Question 40 of 150
40. Question
The scope baseline is an output of what process?
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Question 41 of 150
41. Question
Requirements documentation and the requirements traceability matrix are:
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Question 42 of 150
42. Question
Documents how the scope will be defined, validated, and controlled:
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Question 43 of 150
43. Question
A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization.
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Question 44 of 150
44. Question
A multicriteria decision analysis
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Question 45 of 150
45. Question
An assessment process having multiple alternatives with an expected outcome in the form of future actions, used to generate, classify, and prioritize product requirements:
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Question 46 of 150
46. Question
Tools/techniques used to validate scope include:
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Question 47 of 150
47. Question
A tool/technique used to control scope:
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Question 48 of 150
48. Question
The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline
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Question 49 of 150
49. Question
The following is true about the WBS:
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Question 50 of 150
50. Question
You have just been made the project manager of the redesign project. You are trying to read the WBS and are unable to understand some of the WBS components. Which should be your first step to understand this?
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Question 51 of 150
51. Question
An output of the define scope process is:
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Question 52 of 150
52. Question
What is the WBS typically used for?
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Question 53 of 150
53. Question
Which of the following is a tool/technique used to create the WBS:
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Question 54 of 150
54. Question
Which of the following statements is true about the WBS?
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Question 55 of 150
55. Question
You have completed your activity list and activity attributes. What process have completed:
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Question 56 of 150
56. Question
Which statement is least accurate regarding the PDM?
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Question 57 of 150
57. Question
The difference between the project schedule and the schedule baseline could best be described as:
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Question 58 of 150
58. Question
The schedule forecasts are an output of what process
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Question 59 of 150
59. Question
Activity C has a start to start relationship with Activity D. Activity C is 12 days and activity D is 15 days. If the start of activity D gets delayed by six days, what is the best case duration?
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Question 60 of 150
60. Question
The test plan design must be approved by the project engineer prior to implementation. This represents what type of dependency?
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Question 61 of 150
61. Question
Which statement is most accurate regarding resource leveling and resource smoothing?
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Question 62 of 150
62. Question
In a finish-to-start precedence relationship with a one-day lead:
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Question 63 of 150
63. Question
Which of the following is an example of a FS (finish-to-start) interactivity relationship?
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Question 64 of 150
64. Question
If the planned value (PV) is $275,000 and the earned value (EV) is $300,000, the schedule variance (SV) is:
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Question 65 of 150
65. Question
When correcting a scheduling problem, what is the first technique a project manager should consider?
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Question 66 of 150
66. Question
Top-down duration estimating is also known as:
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Question 67 of 150
67. Question
When crashing a task, the project team needs to focus on:
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Question 68 of 150
68. Question
The EV is $92,000 and the PV is $85,000. This suggests the project is:
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Question 69 of 150
69. Question
The schedule variance is $22,000 and the planned value is $55,000. As such:
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Question 70 of 150
70. Question
Adding resources to the critical path is an example of:
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Question 71 of 150
71. Question
The project is 30% complete and has a budget of $90,000. The actual costs paid-to-date are $25,000 and the budgeted costs to-date were $30,000. What is the status of the project schedule?
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Question 72 of 150
72. Question
At six months in, your $785,000 project is 35% complete and the TCPI is .74 and you’ve spent $95,000 to date. What is the earned value of the project?
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Question 73 of 150
73. Question
The project has earned value of $87,750. Costs-to-date have been $110,000, and the budget is $195,000. What percent complete is this project?
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Question 74 of 150
74. Question
Your project has earned value of $300,000 despite invoices totaling $325,000. You’ve calculated your TCPI as 1.14. What is your budget?
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Question 75 of 150
75. Question
A cost performance index of 0.8 suggests the project is:
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Question 76 of 150
76. Question
For a project with an unexpected cost variance that is not expected to recur, which EAC formula would be most appropriate?
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Question 77 of 150
77. Question
Parametric cost estimating involves:
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Question 78 of 150
78. Question
Analogous estimating:
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Question 79 of 150
79. Question
Which statement is most accurate:
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Question 80 of 150
80. Question
The project has earned value of $87,750. Costs-to-date have been $110,000, and the budget is $195,000. What is the status of the project?
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Question 81 of 150
81. Question
The $350,000 project has a forecasted ($90,000) variance at completion (VAC). What is the estimate at completion (EAC) forecast?
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Question 82 of 150
82. Question
The project has a TCPI of .85. This means:
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Question 83 of 150
83. Question
This is considered an assessment of correctness:
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Question 84 of 150
84. Question
The costs associated with assessing the quality of a product is considered:
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Question 85 of 150
85. Question
Also known as Ishikawa diagrams, these diagrams start with the problem and seek to identify the root causes or causes of the problem:
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Question 86 of 150
86. Question
Varying in complexity, these tools aid organizations in ensuring consistency in frequently performed tasks:
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Question 87 of 150
87. Question
The difference between a quality metric and a quality measurement can best be described as:
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Question 88 of 150
88. Question
Comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects through benchmarking can be used for all of the following except:
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Question 89 of 150
89. Question
The process of monitoring and recording results of quality activities to assess performance and recommend changes as necessary
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Question 90 of 150
90. Question
Once a deliverable has been evaluated through the control quality process, it is considered:
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Question 91 of 150
91. Question
According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the highest level need is:
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Question 92 of 150
92. Question
He believed that resources will put in more effort if they believe they will receive a greater reward.
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Question 93 of 150
93. Question
McGregor’s theory of X and Y states:
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Question 94 of 150
94. Question
He said that individuals have varying levels of need for achievement.
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Question 95 of 150
95. Question
According to Herzberg’s theory of motivation:
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Question 96 of 150
96. Question
Securing resources from external sources:
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Question 97 of 150
97. Question
The process of improving competencies, team member interactions, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.
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Question 98 of 150
98. Question
The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing changes to optimize project performance.
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Question 99 of 150
99. Question
Expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.
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Question 100 of 150
100. Question
A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project.
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Question 101 of 150
101. Question
A hierarchical representation of resources by category and type
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Question 102 of 150
102. Question
The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications based on the stakeholder’s information needs and requirements, and available organizational assets.
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Question 103 of 150
103. Question
The process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance with the communications management plan.
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Question 104 of 150
104. Question
Composed of a sender, receiver, message, medium, and noise.
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Question 105 of 150
105. Question
Used for very large volumes of information, or for very large audiences, and requires the recipients to access the communication content at their own discretion.
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Question 106 of 150
106. Question
The act of collecting and distributing performance information, including status reports, progress measurements, and forecasts. Involves the periodic collection and analysis of baseline versus actual data to understand and communicate the project progress and performance as well as to forecast the project results.
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Question 107 of 150
107. Question
Thoughts or ideas are translated into language by the sender.
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Question 108 of 150
108. Question
When choosing communication technology, all of these factors may be considered, except:
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Question 109 of 150
109. Question
The response strategy that changes the plan to eliminate the probability of risk occurrence:
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Question 110 of 150
110. Question
The response strategy that changes the plan to reduce the probability and/or impact of a threat:
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Question 111 of 150
111. Question
Used when the primary response is not effective:
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Question 112 of 150
112. Question
A risk that arises directly as a result of implementing a risk response.
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Question 113 of 150
113. Question
A response to a negative risk event that is not planned in advance.
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Question 114 of 150
114. Question
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
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Question 115 of 150
115. Question
The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
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Question 116 of 150
116. Question
A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk.
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Question 117 of 150
117. Question
Risk appetite is best described as:
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Question 118 of 150
118. Question
Technique to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management
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Question 119 of 150
119. Question
Risk mitigation is to threats as what strategy is to opportunities?
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Question 120 of 150
120. Question
Review and determination of the timing of actions that may need to occur sooner than other risk items
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Question 121 of 150
121. Question
Joint ventures or other partnerships would be an example of what risk strategy?
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Question 122 of 150
122. Question
Which statement is most accurate regarding risk acceptance?
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Question 123 of 150
123. Question
Which of the following is not an output of the plan procurement management process?
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Question 124 of 150
124. Question
Outputs from the conduct procurements process include:
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Question 125 of 150
125. Question
The most commonly used contract type is:
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Question 126 of 150
126. Question
This contract type is used whenever the seller’s performance period spans a considerable period of years, with a special provision for price adjustments due to changed conditions.
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Question 127 of 150
127. Question
Which statement is most accurate:
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Question 128 of 150
128. Question
Provides the project flexibility to redirect a seller whenever the scope of work cannot be precisely defined at the start and needs to be altered, or when high risks may exist in the effort.
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Question 129 of 150
129. Question
Developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within the related contract.
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Question 130 of 150
130. Question
Used to ensure that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement requirements.
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Question 131 of 150
131. Question
The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections to contracts as appropriate.
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Question 132 of 150
132. Question
In a CPFF contract, the fixed fee is calculated:
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Question 133 of 150
133. Question
A structured review of the seller’s progress to deliver project scope and quality, within cost and on schedule, as compared to the contract.
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Question 134 of 150
134. Question
Which output is completed first: the stakeholder register or the stakeholder management plan?
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Question 135 of 150
135. Question
If you have the completed stakeholder register, what process have you completed?
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Question 136 of 150
136. Question
The primary output of the plan stakeholder engagement process is the:
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Question 137 of 150
137. Question
Individuals, groups or organizations who may affect, be affected by, or perceive themselves to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project:
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Question 138 of 150
138. Question
The stakeholder register typically contains:
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Question 139 of 150
139. Question
The process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project life cycle.
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Question 140 of 150
140. Question
Classifies stakeholders based on their ability to impose their will, their need for immediate attention, and the appropriateness of their level of involvement.
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Question 141 of 150
141. Question
Which statement is least accurate regarding stakeholders
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Question 142 of 150
142. Question
If the project is being conducted for the benefit of an external customer, there may be a legal agreement in place. Which of the following is not a form of an agreement?
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Question 143 of 150
143. Question
Activities A, B, C, and D are happening concurrently. A is three days, B is seven days, C is three days, and D is six days. Which statement is most accurate?
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Question 144 of 150
144. Question
This technique is applied during product design to optimize a specific aspect of the product, such as usability, safety, quality, or customer satisfaction.
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Question 145 of 150
145. Question
All of the following are techniques for improving resource productivity and product quality, except:
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Question 146 of 150
146. Question
Emails and social media posts are considered:
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Question 147 of 150
147. Question
The 5Cs of written communication include:
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Question 148 of 150
148. Question
A tool used to assess and classify stakeholders in a three-dimensional model:
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Question 149 of 150
149. Question
Used to plan stakeholder engagement, this technique may be used to create a visual representation of the stakeholders and their relationships to each other and to the organization:
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Question 150 of 150
150. Question
A stakeholder engagement assessment matrix:
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